Unit III: Bones

Identify the four normal curves of the body


Identify abnormal curves


Pelvis brim : Pelvimetry Be able to discern make and female using several traits, width, heart shaped, 90 degree angle of pubis bones


Be able to label all bones of the skull, vertebral column, ribs and sternum. Know their functions.  You should be able to do this off of pictures from your book, coloring book, lab and unknown sources as well as the actual bones.


The functions and locations of fontanels


You do not need to Be able to discern the different types of vertebrae.


Discuss the roles of hormones in regulating bone growth and bone remodeling.


Be able to explain how a fetus and infant’s skeleton develops.


Be able to describe the disorders of the axial skeleton: cleft palate, deviated septum, spina bifida, abnormal vertebral curves, herniated disc and the difference between rickets and osteoporosis


Know the structural classification of joints

Know the functional classification of joints

synovial: know the parts of this type of joint and their function (KNEE)

synovial cavity: (diarthrosis); articular capsule ; synovial membrane; synovial fluid: accessory ligaments; menisci: bursae:


You do not need to know the types of specific synovial joints. Ex. Pivot, hinge…

Know the Movements at Synovial joints:

  1. angular
    1. flexion: extension:
    2. hyperextension:
    3. abduction:
    4. adduction:
    5. condyloid,
    6. circumduction:
  2. rotation:
  3. special: occur only at certain joints
    1. elevation:
    2. depression:
    3. protraction:
    4. retraction:
    5. inversion:
    6. eversion:
    7. dorsiflexion:
    8. plantarflexion:
    9. supination:
    10. pronation:


Describe the functions of Bone and the Skeletal System:



Describe the Types of Bones:

Should be able to classify on shape and location


Histology: Connective Tissue

What is meant by Calcification:


Describe the bone matrix:


Describe the 4 types of cells in bone tissue:

1. osteogenic cells:

2. osteoblasts:

3. osteocytes:

4. osteoclasts

Be able to label cells, Compact Bone: few spaces, external layer and bulk

  • Protection, support, resist stress by body’s weight
  • Concentric ring structure
  • Volkmans canals (perforating canals) blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerves penetrate transversely through bone width (blood vessels and nerves connect with others in meullary cavity, periosteum and Haversian canals)
  • Haversian canals: lengthwise
  • Concentric lamellae: rings of hard calcified matrix
  • Lacunae: small spaces between concentric rings which hold osteocytes
  • Canaliculi: tiny canals spreading from lacunae allowing projections of osteocytes to meet canals allowing for nutrient and waste exchange
  • Osteon (haversian system) a central canal with surrounding lamellae, lacunae, osteocytes and canaliculi



Describe bone formation in the fetus and the process of bone remodeling:


  1. Two methods of bone formation involve replacing CT with bone

intramembranous ossification :

endochondral ossification:.


  1. Long bone growth at epiphyseal plate is controlled by GH


Bone Remodeling in life is due to

  1. Ca+ in the blood: describe the feedback loop
  2. pull of gravity and muscles



Bone Repair:

  1. Hematoma forms
  2. fibrocartillage callus : grow new capillaries into clotted blood= granulation tissue
  3. bony callus: spongy bone replaces fibrocartilage callus


Bone Markings:

depressions or cavities (indentations)




Processes that form joints:

condyle :



Attachment processes


spinous process or spine: sharp,



Long Bone Anatomy and location of bone marrow and function of bone marrow:


Paranasal sinuses are lined with what type of tissue that would secrete mucus and moisten air as it is inhaled?


The main hormone that regulates the Ca2+ balance between bone and blood is


If an individual has hypercalcemia, meaning they have high levels of calcium in their blood, one would expect to see _______________ in their blood as well.


Place the following steps of endochondral ossification in the correct order:

1. hyaline  cartilage remains on the articular surfaces and the epiphyseal plates

2. Chondroblasts produce a growing hyaline cartilage model surrounded by perichondrium

3. Osteoblasts in the perchondrium produce compact bone

4. Secondary ossification centers form

5. Primary ossification center and medullary cavity form


Rickets is due to primarily a lack of


Floppy bones that are rubbery can form severe deformities like bow legedness are caused by


The formation of porous bones due to osteoclastic activity can be caused by         


Name an opening for nerve passage?


Name a bone classified as a flat bone


What forms a lining for the medullary cavity?


Functions of the skeletal system do not include


Sites of hematopoiesis include       


Name the cells that function in bone remodeling.                     


Which is characteristic of normal children's bones?

a.            the presence of epiphyseal lines      c.            The presence of a bony callus.        

b.            A medullary cavity filled with red bone marrow.


Describe what the osteon/haversian system exhibits: (the components)


Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is NOT true:

a.            the bones are heavier and rougher   c.            the male pubic arch is wider than a female   

b.            the male pelvis is narrow and deep  d.            the cavity of the pelvis is small


Since at birth the bones of the cranium have not completed their ossification, there are membranous portions between them called:


In the aged, osteoblastic activity is ____ osteoclastic activity.


Where is compact bone located? Think long bone anatomy


What type of arthritis is an autoimmune disorder?


Match the following joint types to the following questions

a.            Synarthroses        c.            Diarthroses         

b.            Amphiarthroses

c             exhibit a joint cavity



               Bones are connected by collagen fibers       

               Types include intervertebral joints 

               all are freely movable       

               slightly moveable              

               Bones connected by a disk of cartilage                        



               E the  mandible bone? T/F

               F the Mandible bone? T/F 

               C is the lacrimal bone. T/F              

               A is the parietal bone T/F 

               D is the nasal bone. T/F    

               B is the parietal bone. T/F


               D is the lambdoidal suture. T/F       

               G is the occipital bone. T/F             

               B is the sphenoid bone. T/F             

               T is the ethmoid bone. T/F

               M is the styloid process. T/F          

               S is the zygomatic process. T/F


               Letter C is the manubrium. T/F       

               E attaches to costal cartilage T/F    

               Clavicle attaches to D. T/F



               C is the glenoid fossa. T/F

               B is the acromion process. T/F.      

               D is showing the posterior view. T/F


               E is the olecranon process. T/F      

               AD is the trochlea T/F      

               Bone G is the humerus. T/F             

               AB  is the coronoid fossa. T/F


               D is the distal phalanx.  T/F             

               A are collectively known as carpals. T/F       

               This view is anterior. T/F


               B is the acetubular fossa. T/F.         

               A is the ilium T/F              

               C is the ischium. T/F


Figure 1                                                             Figure 2

               Fig. 1. B is the greater trochanter. T/F          

               Fig 1. D are the epicondyltes. T/F  

               Fig 1. E is the intercondyloid fossa. T/F       

               Fig 2. AD is near the tibial tuberosity. T/F   

               Figure 2, AB is on the Lateral side. T/F        

               Figure 2, AB is part of the ankle. T/F


               A is the calcaneous. T/F    

               AD  is the middle pphalanges. T/F  

               This is the left foot. T/F



Figure 1                                Figure 2                                    Figure 3










               Figure 1 is what type of joint?        

               Figure 2 is what ype of joint?          

               Figure 3 is what type of joint?        

               Which type is slightly moveable?   

               Which type is a common location for arthritis to develop?


The location where two bones meet is called an articulation: T/F


A reduction is the process of putting a dislocated bone back into place. T/F


Bursae are small pockets of synovial fluid that form to reduce friction and act as a shock absorbers where ligaments and tendons ? T/F


What is the cause of gout?

 the accumulation of uric acid in the blood forming sodium urate crystals and embedding into


An immovable joint is a(n)


A slightly movable joint is a(n)

a.         synarthrosis       d.         gomphosis        

b.         diarthrosis         e.         synostosis        

c.         amphiarthrosis


A freely movable joint is a(n)


A suture would be an example of a(n)

a.         synarthrosis       d.         diarthrosis        

b.         syndesmoses     e.         amphiarthrosis  

c.         symphysis


A synovial joint would be an  example of a(n)


Which of the following is not a function of the synovial fluid?

a.         shock absorption                                                  d.       provide nutrients           

b.         increase osmotic pressure within a joint   e.         protect articular cartilage

c.         lubrication


Decreasing the angle between the bones is termed


A movement towards the midline of the body is termed


A twisting motion of the foot that runs the sole inward is termed (facing medially)


The opposite movement of pronation is


The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the


The knee joint is reinforced by

a.         cruciate ligaments                                    d.       tibial (medial) collateral ligaments           

b.         fibular (lateral) collateral ligaments           e.         all of the above           

c.         patellar ligaments


Articular cartilage and bursae would most likely be found in which of the following?

a.         gomphosis         c.         pubic symphysis           

b.         suture                d.        the knee


The joints between the vertebrae and the joint between the hip bones are examples of which joint type?


A stretched or torn muscle is called a


Due to the avascular structure of connective tissue, a ________ is much more serious than a _________ due to the slow healing process and the loss of some effectiveness.


Aging joints demostrate all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

a.         decrease in synovial fluid            d.         genetics

b.         articular cartilage thickens           e.         wear and tear   

c.         ligaments shorten and lose flexibility


__________ arthritis is the result of an antibacterial infection and treated with antibiotics.


A degenerative disorder of the articular cartilage  of the larger joints causing exposed bone to grow spurs and leads to painful crunching noises when joint is used.


This type of arthritis is treated through weight management, avoiding foods such as liver, kidney’s sardines, and alcohol due to the high nucleic acid content.




A body has been found at a crime scene where the lividity disappears when the coroner applies pressure to the skin. The coroner correctly times the death within the last 2 hours. T/F


When the rate is high enough and the muscle fiber cannot relax at all between stimuli  the twitches fuse into one smooth sustained contraction called  


Although, the autonomic nervous system does run to the heart it is not responsible for


Cardaic muscle has which characteristic to enable the organ to beat in synchrony?


The structure of the heart demands a long refractory period which ensures


An athlete can increase endurance by     


In order to grow larger muscles, meaning grow more muscle cells, an individual can


Atrophy is the partial or complete wasting away of a part of the body.


Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, otherwise known as Lou Gehrig’s disease, involves 


Myasthenia gravis is an auto-immune where antibodies are made to attack        


Match the following terms to their application in determining the time of death for a corpse.

a.         Algor Mortis    b.           Rigor Mortis   c.            Livor Mortis     


discoloration of the skin occurs when red blood cells begin to break and spilling their contents including hemoglobin which turns purple when outside of RBC. Purple color is visible on skin where blood pools   

            temporary stiffnes         

            a body loses about 1 degree of body heat per hour


The primary function of the skeletal muscle is

a.         movement of body extremities and locomotion     c. production of heat     

b.         movement of contents through the viscera


When the neurotransmitter is released and attaches to the receptors on the sarcolemma, __________ rushes into the cell causing, ____ which subsequently leads to the contraction process.


The mechanical force of the contraction is generated by:


The ions that are released inside the muscle cell during action potential are


Characteristics of isometric contractions


The dense layer of collagen fibers that surround an entire skeletal muscle is the


Nerves and blood vessels that service the muscle fibers are located in the connective tissues of the


The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the


The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to the bone is called a(n)


Skeletal muscle fibers differ from “typical cells” in that these muscle fibers


List the advantages of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber :


The cell membrane of skeletal muscle is called the


The cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the


The command to contract is distributed throughout a muscle fiber by the


The membranous network of channels within a muscle fiber is the


The functional unit of a skeletal muscle is the


The sarcoplasmic reticulum stores


Cross bridges are located on

At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by


At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by


The ______________ contains vessicles filled with acetylcholine.


The space between the neuron and the muscle is the


Active sites on actin become available for binding when


In response to action potentials arriving from the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reiculum releases


The type of contraction represented by a single stimulus contraction relaxation sequence is


Calcium ions are released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum during the ______ phase of contraction.


The smooth but steady increase in muscle tension produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called:


The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers produce increased tension, but do not shorten is called


A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by


Creatine phosphate


When energy reserves in a muscle are exhausted or lactic acid levels increase


Describe Fast fibers


The type of muscle fiber that is best adapted for endurance is the


Activities that require anaerobic endurance

a.         require maximal contraction of muscles for short periods of time   

c.         usually do not cause an individual to develop an oxygen debt        

b.         do not use ATP very quickly     

d.         do not rely on the energy reserves of creatine phosphate


During activities requiring aerobic endurance

a.         glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources of reserve energy 

d.         fatigue occurs in a few minutes  

b.         oxygen debts are common         

c.         most of the muscle’s energy is produced in mitochondria


Which of the following is not a characteristic of smooth muscle?


Identify the  characteristic of cardiac muscle?


The more moveable end of a muscle is the


A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)


Fast muscle fibers can develop a larger number of mitochondria in response to


Because skeletal muscle contractions demand large quantities of ATP, skeletal muscles have


How would blocking the activity of acetylcholinerase affect skeletal muscle? (acetylcholinerase is an enzyme that degrades acetylcholine.


Which of the following hormones regulate(s) calcium and phosphate ion concentrations?


Which hormone stimulates growth of muscle tissue and increased muscle mass?


In which of the following would the ratio of motor neurons to muscle fibers be the greatest?

a.         large muscles of the upper arms  c.         muscles that control the eye       

b.         postural muscles of the back       d.         leg muscles


Which of the following scenarios would produce the most tension?

a.         a muscle with 20 motor units most active b. a  muscle with 10 motor units active


Which of the following activities would employ isometric contractions?

a.         flexing the forearm         c.         maintaining an upright posture


Increased oxygen consumption would accompany


A person whose genetic makeup makes them a better marathon runner than a sprinter probably has more ________ in their leg muscles.


The term used to describe a number of inherited diseases characterized by progressive muscular weakness and deterioration.


Rigor mortis occurs at death due to a lack of